The Rule in Pigot’s Case (1614) and Its Effect in Contract Law
As I am currently in the middle of an in-depth course that deals with the law of obligations, I have to admit to feeling a little ashamed of myself for never having heard of Pigot’s Case – especially the rule and the impact it currently has on English contract law. I have gone through every last textbook connected to the course with a fine-tooth comb, and there is not a single mention of this case anywhere.
So, would this lack of knowledge about and coverage of the case of Winchcombe v. Pigot [1558-1774] All E.R. Rep. 50 mean that the rule established in this case is no longer applicable in our common law?